Suppose we know of a bisexual person who is the owner of a company.  This owner goes around and constantly asks men for dates.  This owner also touches these men on their hips and rear ends quite often.  This owner even promises raises to these men if they will go out with her.  Now, the same bisexual person goes around and constantly asks women for dates.  This owner tells women she'll buy them chocolates and promote them if they go with her on dates.  This owner touch women in multiple, suggestive ways whenever she feels like it.

Question: Does this bisexual person engage in discrimination?  If so, how so?

Another Petition

Hello Xanga,

I created another petition on We the People. Will you add your name to mine? If this petition gets 100,000 signatures by April 25, 2013, the White House will review it and respond!

You can view and sign the petition here:

https://petitions.whitehouse.gov/petition/end-selective-service-system-entirely-and-end-its-penalties/Q6RbNpYt

Here's some more information about this petition:

End the Selective Service System entirely and end its penalties.

We seek the abolition of the Selective Service System entirely. End the Selective Service System entirely and make discrimination against men who did not register with the Selective Service System in the past illegal in all 50 states.

Petition

Hello Xanga!

I haven't talked to you in quite a few months now!

I have a petition out right now which should work towards equality under the law for women and men.  I would appreciate it if you would read and sign my petition.

These articles also bear some relevance here.

I will add that I do not believe it realistic to expect the government to ever abolish the selective service system.  However, if you or anyone you know has a petition which seeks to abolish the selective service system entirely, I will sign it.

Also, please pass my petition along to other people!

Thank you in advance!

P. S. If you consider yourself a feminist, I would personally like to know if you signed my petition.

I seriously doubt anyone, or at least not all that many people, care(s) but myself, but I intend to post here from now on.

A Simple Formal System

    Symbolic logic in some sense depends on well-formed formulas or wffs, for short, since all proofs in symbolic logic consist of sequences of wffs.  Usually wffs get defined informally.  It does come as possible, though, within some language to have formal proofs of certain sequences of symbols as wffs, as follows.  Let "x" and "y" denote any sequence of symbols which can get proven as a wff in this language, or gets taken by one of the axioms as a wff.

Axiom 1 (A1): "p" is a wff.

Axiom 2 (A2): "q" is a wff.

Rule of inference 1 (N-rule): If x is a wff, then we may infer Nx as a wff.  Or for short, x |- Nx.

Rule of inference 2 (C-rule): If x is a wff, if y is a wff as well, then we may infer Cxy as a wff.  In symbols x, y |- Cxy.

    Now, in this language, we can proceed to prove longer sequences of symbols as wffs.  For example, we can prove CCCCpqCNpqqp as a wff.

1 p by A1

2 q by A2

3 Cpq by 1, 2, C-rule

4 Np by 1, N-rule

5 CNpq by 4, 1, C-rule

6 CCpqCNpq 3, 5, C-rule

7 CCCpqCNpqq 6, 2 C-rule

8 CCCCpqCNpqqp 7, 1 C-rule

     Note that the rules like "x, y |- Cxy" do not assert anything about the truth of "x" or "y" here.  Instead, they merely indicate "x" and "y" as either axioms or, in some sense, can get inferred as on the same plane as the axioms.